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KÓD TESTU

6627

MATURITA 2013

EXTERNÁ ČASŤ

B2

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Section I – LISTENING (20 points)

This section of the test has three parts. You will hear three recordings which you will listen to twice. While listening, answer the questions in the appropriate part of the test.

Audio - pokyny:

Part 1: An Interview with Carrie Underwood (7 points)

You will hear an interview with Carrie Underwood, a popular American country singer. For the following statements 01–07, choose the correct answer (A), (B), (C) or (D). There is always only one correct answer.

Mark your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "X".

Now you have 2 minutes to read the tasks.

Audio - ukážka:

1.) The break in Carrie’s career was caused by her marriage and her [.....].

(A)

back surgery

(B)

husband’s operation

(C)

husband’s hockey activities

(D)

writing of a book

2.) Carrie plans to start a sporting activity because [.....].

(A)

she has changed her dietary and nutrition habits

(B)

she has started a new slimming programme

(C)

she is preparing for demanding performances

(D)

she wants to train for running with her husband

3.) One thing that annoys Carrie is her inability to [.....].

(A)

sing whistle tones

(B)

create lyrics

(C)

write songs alone

(D)

play an instrument

4.) Carrie and her husband came from [.....].

(A)

the same town

(B)

large towns

(C)

similar social backgrounds

(D)

different social backgrounds

5.) Carrie is delighted that currently she doesn’t have to take care of [.....].

(A)

laundry and shopping

(B)

shopping and finances

(C)

cooking and shopping

(D)

grass and finances

6.) When Carrie was offered use of a private company aeroplane, she [.....].

(A)

accepted the offer

(B)

refused the offer

(C)

paid for it

(D)

used it once

7.) Carrie thinks she and her husband [.....].

(A)

are worried about each other

(B)

are dependent on each other

(C)

are not in the public eye so often

(D)

are not under each other ’s control

Part 2: A Famous Industrialist (6 points)

You will hear a radio programme discussing some facts from the life of Henry Ford. For questions 08 –13, decide whether the statements are true (A), false (B), or whether the information was not given (C).

Mark your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "X".

Now you have 2 minutes to read the tasks.

Audio - pokyny:

Audio - ukážka:

8.) Henry Ford inherited the Ford Motor Company from his father.

(A)

true

(B)

false

(C)

not stated

9.) Ford was promoted to Chief Engineer in the first year of his con tract with the Edison Illuminating Company.

(A)

true

(B)

false

(C)

not stated

10.) Ford’s focus on car design led to the bankruptcy of the Detroit Automobile Company.

(A)

true

(B)

false

(C)

not stated

11.) In the Henry Ford Company, Ford trained in his Quadricycle for half a year to win a race.

(A)

true

(B)

false

(C)

not stated

12.) Barney Oldfield set a new land speed record while taking the car round the country.

(A)

true

(B)

false

(C)

not stated

13.) Henry Ford motivated his employees by giving them a chance to s hare profits.

(A)

true

(B)

false

(C)

not stated

Part 3: Common Friendship Problems (7 points)

You are going to listen to a radio programme for parents, discussing what kind of friendship problems their children might face in school. You will hear the descriptions of six problems.
Below you can read some information (14 –20), which is in the wrong order. Indicate the order in which you hear the information by writing a number 1–6 next to the number that indicates the information. Be careful, there is one extra summary – put X next to the number indicating extra information.

Write your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "pen".

Now you have 2 minutes to read the tasks.

Audio - pokyny:

Audio - ukážka:

14.) Being influenced unfairly.

Poradové číslo:

15.) When friends set bad examples.

Poradové číslo:

16.) Not being included in a group.

Poradové číslo:

17.) When peers are exposed to family conflicts.

Poradové číslo:

18.) Friendships and school results are connected.

Poradové číslo:

19.) Some friendships don’t survive.

Poradové číslo:

20.) How to deal with bullying.

Poradové číslo:

Section II – LANGUAGE IN USE (40 points)

This section of the test has three parts. To complete this section of the test, you will need approximately 45 minutes.

Part 1: Moving is a Process of Loss and Gain (20 points)

For questions 21–40, read the text below. Decide which word or phrase A, B, C or D best fits each space. There is an example at the beginning (00).

Example: 00 – (C) -> in

Mark your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "X".

Sasha Person, 38, her husband Greg, 37, and children Poppy, five, and Toby, three, moved to Melbourne, Australia 00 November 2011, shortly after the riots 21

happened close to their home in Enfield, London.
Greg is Australian and he always said they 22

move back to Australia when the time felt right. The riots, the economic downturn and the crime all helped them decide to 23

the risk. Now they live in a lovely detached house in a clean, beautiful city with 24

of wonderful festivals going on around them. However, Sasha 25

it very difficult to settle there.
There are times she feels 26

without her family and friends. Greg’s family live a 14-hour drive away, so it’s not 27

they are just around the corner to help. Simply 28

someone to babysit would make a huge difference.
After arriving in Australia, Sasha encountered many 29

problems. For one thing, the job skills she 30

up at an investment bank didn’t apply in Australia. From the start childcare 31

another issue. When Toby went to daycare in England 32

was one teacher for every five pupils, but over there the 33

is one to 15. Sasha felt Toby 34

looked after properly, so she had to take him out. In addition, Australian children start school later than Brits, so, as a result Poppy 35

her first year.
They 36

some great weekends, on the beach or at theme parks, but Sasha finds herself 37

little things, like quality sausages and bacon. 38

, she spent hours searching for cranberry jam.
There have been times when Sasha has felt so miserable that she 39

back home. She is trying to make a 40

of life in Australia.

Part 2: The Women of the Year (10 points)

For questions 41–50, read the text below. Use the word at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (00).

Example: 00 – lawyers

Write your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "pen".

Baroness Helena Kennedy QC is one of the foremost human rights 00 and the President of the Women of the Year Lunch and Awards. In her career, she’s fought to make the 41

system more of the realities of women’s lives. The law now has changed 42

but women have still got a long way to go. Women of the Year is an 43

of that fight, keeping women and their 44

on the agenda, and showing what they can do if they put their minds to it.
The 45

thing about the lunch is that it brings together such an 46

cross-section of women, recognising the exceptional in all form s – whether it’s high-achievers succeeding in a very male world, or those who might call themselves ordinary women, who by their 47

to their community make a huge difference to the lives of the others.
Some of the guests are 48

and on the television every night, and some work quietly to hold their communities together by starting a soup kitchen.
Some have made extraordinary contributions to the movement for the rights of the 49

; some have fostered more children than you can count. No woman at that lunch has bought a ticket – every single one deserves t o be there.
The nomination process involves a council with women from all over the country who put out the message, connect to local women’s organisations, and scan local newspapers for 50

stories.

Part 3: Danish Delights (10 points)

Fill each of the numbered blanks (51–60) in the passage with one suitable word. There is an example at the beginning (00).

Example: 00 – not

Write your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "pen".

Denmark is easy to get to, with a wide choice of flights as well as ferries. The Danes themselves 00 only seem to all speak English, but are well-mannered and hospi table, too.
With its museums and galleries, architecture, cool bars and hot restaurants, Copenhagen 51

been slowly working its way up the hit parade of city breaks. Its efficient transportation makes it so easy for a weekend. For example, last summer in less 52

an hour after their flight touched down, Lindsay Nicholson and her friend 53

checking in to their hotel, the Kong Arthur.
Copenhagen is also a city that will certainly appeal 54

a broad spectrum of interests. Food fans, for example, will want to visit ʻNomaʼ, ranked for three years running 55

the best restaurant in the world – but you’ll need to book weeks ahead and warn your bank manager. 56

, there are more affordable alternatives. Some people suggest combining 57

visit to the enchanting Tivoli, part-funfair, part-garden, part-fairytale, with traditional Danish dishes at The Brothers Price, housed in a huge conservatory.
Denmark, of course, is synonymous 58

design, best seen in the Kunstindustrimuseet and the smaller Danish Design Centre. Visitors should take the train to Humlebaek and head for Louisiana, one of the most interesting modern art museums in the world 59

modern art is their priority. It’s also spectacularly located in gardens overlooking 60

sea with Sweden on the horizon.

Section III – READING (20 points)

This section of the test has three parts. To complete this section of the test, you will need approximately 45 minutes.

Part 1: The Wartime Wedding (7 points)

Read the following story. For questions 61–67, decide which sentence (A)–(J) below the text best fits into each of the numbered gaps in the article. There are three extra sentences which do not fit any of the gaps.

Mark your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "X".

I’ll never forget seeing Alan walk past the shop where I worked, staring at his reflection in the window. 61

So, when he came into the store to ask me for a date, I didn’t give him the time of day.

But Alan was stubborn. He simply walked around the block and asked me again! 62

I later found out it was me he’d been staring at through the window. We married four years later when I was 20.

Organising and funding a wedding during WW II wasn’t easy. 63

Believing in the tradition of having something old, new, borrowed and blue, I borrowed a cream satin gown from my Aunt Bessie – it counted as something old too! Everybody wanted to help me out! I did buy a new veil and we had glass bluebirds on top of our traditional fruit wedding cake. 64

During the war there was not much fabric available. 65

My mother, Kathleen, put a bridesmaid’s dress together with leftover material. My floral arrangement was made of flowers picked from the same tree Alan used to give my mum a bouquet when we first started dating.

We married in a church in Sydney. My brother-in-law, George, took me to the altar as my father had died when I was three. 66

Guests bought us modest gifts because times were tight and Mum prepared a traditional wedding breakfast fro m nothing.

Our first dance was to music from a record player – then Alan and I caught a train to Queensland. 67

We had been married for 64 years before Alan died. He always said the best decision of his life was walking around the block and asking me for that first date a second time.

Part 2: Between Birth and the World Championship Match (6 points)

Garry Kasparov is generally regarded as the greatest chess player ever. He was the 13th world champion. Read the text and decide whether the statements 68–73 are true (A) or false (B). For each statement also write the letter (a)–(e) of the paragraph in which you found the evidence for your answer.

Mark your answers on the answer sheet labelled with "X".

(A)

Garry Kasparov was born Garik Kimovich Weinstein in 1963 in Baku to an Armenian mother and Russian Jewish father. He first began the serious study of chess after he came across a chess problem set up by his parents and proposed a solution. His father died of leukemia when he was seven years old. At the age of twelve, he adopted his mother’s Armenian surname.

(B)

From the age of 7, Kasparov attended the Young Pioneer Palace in Baku and, at 10, began training at Mikhail Botvinnik’s chess school. At the age of 13, Kasparov won the Soviet Junior Championship in Tbilisi in 1976, scoring 7 points out of 9. He repeated the triumph the following year, winning with a score of 8 ½ out of 9. He was being trained by Alexander Shakarov during this time.

(C)

In 1978, Kasparov participated in the Sokolsky Memorial tournament in Minsk. He had been invited as an exception but took first place and became a chess master. Kasparov has repeatedly said that this event was a turning point in his life – to play chess professionally. He has also said that after the victory, he thought he had a very good shot at the World Championship. After several other successes, he won the World Junior Chess Championship in Dortmund, West Germany in 1980.

(D)

After this, Kasparov wanted to challenge World Champion Anatoly Karpov, but first he had to qualify in the Candidates Tournament. He defeated the exceptionally tough Alexander Beliavsky in his first match of the tournament. His next match, against Viktor Korchnoi, due to be played in Pasadena, California, was threatened by politics. Korchnoi had fled the Soviet Union in the late 1970s, and at that time was the strongest non-Soviet player.

(E)

Various political manoeuvres prevented Kasparov from playing Korchnoi, and Kasparov gave up the match. However, Korchnoi allowed the match to be played in London, and Kasparov won. His final Candidates match was against Vassily Smyslov. Smyslov had been the 7th World Champion in 1957, but later years saw his willingness to fight for wins greatly diminished. Kasparov won the match 4 – 0. He had finally earned the right to challenge Karpov for the title.

68.) Kasparov was undefeated in the final Candidates match.

(A)

true

(B)

false